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| |  |  | 10200HB1091sam003 | - 2 - | LRB102 03105 RLC 38821 a | 
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| 1 |  |  "High-volume third-party seller" means a participant in an  | 
| 2 |  | online marketplace who is a third-party seller and who, in any  | 
| 3 |  | continuous 12-month period during the previous 24 months, has  | 
| 4 |  | entered into 200 or more discrete sales or transactions of new  | 
| 5 |  | or unused consumer products and has an aggregate total of  | 
| 6 |  | $5,000 or more in gross revenue. For purposes of calculating  | 
| 7 |  | the number of discrete sales or transactions or the aggregate  | 
| 8 |  | gross revenues under subsection (a) of Section 1-10, an online  | 
| 9 |  | marketplace shall only be required to count sales or  | 
| 10 |  | transactions made through the online marketplace and for which  | 
| 11 |  | payment was processed by the online marketplace, either  | 
| 12 |  | directly or through its payment processor.  | 
| 13 |  |  "Online marketplace" means any person or entity that: | 
| 14 |  |   (1) operates a consumer-directed electronically based  | 
| 15 |  | or accessed platform that includes features that allow  | 
| 16 |  | for, facilitate, or enable online third-party sellers to  | 
| 17 |  | engage in the sale, purchase, payment, storage, shipping,  | 
| 18 |  | or delivery of consumer products in this State; | 
| 19 |  |   (2) is used by one or more online third-party sellers  | 
| 20 |  | for such purposes; and | 
| 21 |  |   (3) has a contractual or similar relationship with  | 
| 22 |  | consumers governing their use of the platform to purchase  | 
| 23 |  | consumer product.
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| 24 |  |  "Seller" means a person who sells, offers to sell, or  | 
| 25 |  | contracts to sell consumer products through an online  | 
| 26 |  | marketplace's platform.
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| |  |  | 10200HB1091sam003 | - 3 - | LRB102 03105 RLC 38821 a | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  |  "Third-party seller" means any seller, independent of an  | 
| 2 |  | online marketplace, who sells, offers to sell, or contracts to  | 
| 3 |  | sell a consumer product in this State through an online  | 
| 4 |  | marketplace. "Third-party seller" does not include, with  | 
| 5 |  | respect to an online marketplace: | 
| 6 |  |   (1) a seller who operates the online marketplace's  | 
| 7 |  | platform; or | 
| 8 |  |   (2) a business entity that has: | 
| 9 |  |    (A) made available to the public the entity's  | 
| 10 |  | name, business address, and working contact  | 
| 11 |  | information; | 
| 12 |  |    (B) an ongoing contractual relationship with the  | 
| 13 |  | online marketplace to provide the online marketplace  | 
| 14 |  | with the manufacture, distribution, wholesaling, or  | 
| 15 |  | fulfillment of shipments of consumer products; and
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| 16 |  |    (C) provided to the online marketplace identifying  | 
| 17 |  | information, as described in
subsection (a) of Section  | 
| 18 |  | 1-10, that has been verified in accordance with that  | 
| 19 |  | subsection.
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| 20 |  |  "Verify" means to confirm information provided to an  | 
| 21 |  | online marketplace, including, but not limited to, by the use  | 
| 22 |  | of one or more methods that enable the online marketplace to  | 
| 23 |  | reliably determine that any information and documents provided  | 
| 24 |  | are valid, corresponding to the seller or an individual acting  | 
| 25 |  | on the seller's behalf, not misappropriated, and not  | 
| 26 |  | falsified.
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| |  |  | 10200HB1091sam003 | - 4 - | LRB102 03105 RLC 38821 a | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  |  Section 1-10. Online marketplace verification.
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| 2 |  |  (a) Online marketplaces shall require that any high-volume  | 
| 3 |  | third-party seller on the online marketplace's platform  | 
| 4 |  | provide the online marketplace with the following information  | 
| 5 |  | no later than 10 days after qualifying as a high-volume  | 
| 6 |  | third-party seller on the platform: | 
| 7 |  |   (1) A bank account number, or, if the high-volume  | 
| 8 |  | third-party seller does not have a bank account, the name  | 
| 9 |  | of the payee for payments issued by the online marketplace  | 
| 10 |  | to the high-volume third-party seller. The bank account or  | 
| 11 |  | payee information required may be provided by the seller  | 
| 12 |  | to the online marketplace or other third parties  | 
| 13 |  | contracted by the online marketplace to maintain the  | 
| 14 |  | information, so long as the online marketplace ensures  | 
| 15 |  | that it can obtain the information on demand from the  | 
| 16 |  | other third parties. | 
| 17 |  |   (2) The contact information for the high-volume  | 
| 18 |  | third-party seller.
If the high-volume third-party seller  | 
| 19 |  | is an individual, the individual's name shall be provided.
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| 20 |  | If the high-volume third-party seller is not an  | 
| 21 |  | individual, a copy of a valid government-issued  | 
| 22 |  | identification for an individual acting on behalf of the  | 
| 23 |  | seller that includes the individual's name or a copy of a  | 
| 24 |  | valid government-issued record or tax document that  | 
| 25 |  | includes the business name and physical address of the  | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  | seller shall be provided.
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| 2 |  |   (3) A business tax identification number or, if the  | 
| 3 |  | high-volume third-party seller does not have a business  | 
| 4 |  | tax identification number, a taxpayer identification  | 
| 5 |  | number. | 
| 6 |  |   (4) A current working email address and phone number  | 
| 7 |  | for the high-volume third-party seller.
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| 8 |  |  (b) An online marketplace shall periodically, but not less  | 
| 9 |  | than annually, notify any high-volume third-party seller on  | 
| 10 |  | the online marketplace's platform of the requirement to keep  | 
| 11 |  | any information collected under subsection (a) current and  | 
| 12 |  | require any high-volume third-party seller on the online  | 
| 13 |  | marketplace's platform to, not later than 10 days after  | 
| 14 |  | receiving the notice, electronically certify that: | 
| 15 |  |   (1) the high-volume third-party seller has provided  | 
| 16 |  | any changes to the information to the online marketplace,  | 
| 17 |  | if such changes have occurred;  | 
| 18 |  |   (2) there have been no changes to the high-volume  | 
| 19 |  | third-party seller's information; or | 
| 20 |  |   (3) the high-volume third-party seller has provided  | 
| 21 |  | any changes to such information to the online marketplace. | 
| 22 |  |  (c) If a high-volume third-party seller does not provide  | 
| 23 |  | the information or certification required under this Section,  | 
| 24 |  | the online marketplace, after providing the seller with  | 
| 25 |  | written or electronic notice and an opportunity to provide the  | 
| 26 |  | information or certification not later than 10 days after the  | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  | issuance of the notice, shall suspend any future sales  | 
| 2 |  | activity of the seller until the seller provides the  | 
| 3 |  | information or certification.
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| 4 |  |  (d) An online marketplace shall verify the information  | 
| 5 |  | collected under subsection (a) no later than 10 days after the  | 
| 6 |  | collection and shall verify any change to the information not  | 
| 7 |  | later than 10 days after being notified of the change by a  | 
| 8 |  | high-volume third-party seller under subsection (b). If a  | 
| 9 |  | high-volume third-party seller provides a copy of a valid  | 
| 10 |  | government-issued tax document, any information contained in  | 
| 11 |  | the document shall be presumed to be verified as of the date of  | 
| 12 |  | issuance of the document.
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| 13 |  |  (e) An online marketplace shall require any high-volume  | 
| 14 |  | third-party seller with an aggregate total of $20,000 or more  | 
| 15 |  | in annual gross revenues on the online marketplace, and that  | 
| 16 |  | uses the online marketplace's platform, to provide information  | 
| 17 |  | to the online marketplace that includes the identity of the  | 
| 18 |  | high-volume third-party seller, including: | 
| 19 |  |   (1) the full name of the seller or seller's company  | 
| 20 |  | name, or the name by which the seller or company operates  | 
| 21 |  | on the online marketplace; | 
| 22 |  |   (2) the physical address of the seller; | 
| 23 |  |   (3) the contact information of the seller including a  | 
| 24 |  | current working phone number; a current working email  | 
| 25 |  | address for the seller; or other means of direct  | 
| 26 |  | electronic messaging that may be provided to the  | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  | high-volume third-party seller by the online marketplace  | 
| 2 |  | to allow for the direct, unhindered communication with  | 
| 3 |  | high-volume third-party sellers by users of the online  | 
| 4 |  | marketplace; and | 
| 5 |  |   (4) whether the high-volume third-party seller used a  | 
| 6 |  | different seller to supply consumer products to consumers  | 
| 7 |  | upon purchase, and, upon the request of a consumer, the  | 
| 8 |  | information described in paragraph (1) of this subsection  | 
| 9 |  | (e) relating to any such seller that supplied the consumer  | 
| 10 |  | product to the consumer, if the seller is different from  | 
| 11 |  | the high-volume third-party seller listed on the product  | 
| 12 |  | listing prior to purchase.
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| 13 |  |  (f) An online marketplace shall provide to consumers the  | 
| 14 |  | information in subsection (e) in a conspicuous manner: (i) in  | 
| 15 |  | the order confirmation message or other document or  | 
| 16 |  | communication made to a consumer after a purchase is  | 
| 17 |  | finalized; and (ii) in the consumer's account transaction  | 
| 18 |  | history.
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| 19 |  |  (g) Upon the request of a high-volume third-party seller,  | 
| 20 |  | an online marketplace may provide for partial disclosure of  | 
| 21 |  | the identity information required under subsection (e) as  | 
| 22 |  | follows: | 
| 23 |  |   (1) If the high-volume third-party seller certifies to  | 
| 24 |  | the online marketplace that the seller does not have a  | 
| 25 |  | business address and only has a residential street  | 
| 26 |  | address, or has a combined business and residential  | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  | address, the online marketplace may disclose only the  | 
| 2 |  | country and, if applicable, the state in which the  | 
| 3 |  | high-volume third-party seller resides; and inform  | 
| 4 |  | consumers that there is no business address available for  | 
| 5 |  | the seller and that consumer inquiries should be submitted  | 
| 6 |  | to the seller by phone, email, or other means of  | 
| 7 |  | electronic messaging provided to the seller by the online  | 
| 8 |  | marketplace. | 
| 9 |  |   (2) If the high-volume third-party seller certifies to  | 
| 10 |  | the online marketplace that the seller is a business that  | 
| 11 |  | has a physical address for product returns, the online  | 
| 12 |  | marketplace may disclose the seller's physical address for  | 
| 13 |  | product returns. | 
| 14 |  |   (3) If a high-volume third-party seller certifies to  | 
| 15 |  | the online marketplace that the seller does not have a  | 
| 16 |  | phone number other than a personal phone number, the  | 
| 17 |  | online marketplace shall inform consumers that there is no  | 
| 18 |  | phone number available for the seller and that consumer  | 
| 19 |  | inquiries should be submitted to the seller's email  | 
| 20 |  | address or other means of electronic messaging provided to  | 
| 21 |  | the seller by the online marketplace.
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| 22 |  |  (h) If an online marketplace becomes aware that a  | 
| 23 |  | high-volume third-party seller has made a false representation  | 
| 24 |  | to the online marketplace in order to justify the provision of  | 
| 25 |  | a partial disclosure under subsection (g) or that a  | 
| 26 |  | high-volume third-party seller who has requested and received  | 
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| 1 |  | a provision for a partial disclosure under subsection (g) has  | 
| 2 |  | not provided responsive answers within a reasonable time to  | 
| 3 |  | consumer inquiries submitted to the seller by phone, email, or  | 
| 4 |  | other means of electronic messaging provided to the seller by  | 
| 5 |  | the online marketplace, the online marketplace shall, after  | 
| 6 |  | providing the seller with written or electronic notice and an  | 
| 7 |  | opportunity to respond not later than 10 days after the  | 
| 8 |  | issuance of the notice, suspend any future sales activity of  | 
| 9 |  | the seller unless the seller consents to the disclosure of the  | 
| 10 |  | identity information required under subsection (e).
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| 11 |  |  (i) If a high-volume third-party seller does not comply  | 
| 12 |  | with the requirements to provide and disclose information  | 
| 13 |  | under this Section, the online marketplace, after providing  | 
| 14 |  | the seller with written or electronic notice and an  | 
| 15 |  | opportunity to provide or disclose the information not later  | 
| 16 |  | than 10 days after the issuance of the notice, shall suspend  | 
| 17 |  | any future sales activity of the seller until the seller  | 
| 18 |  | complies with the requirements.
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| 19 |  |  (j) An online marketplace shall disclose to consumers in a  | 
| 20 |  | clear and conspicuous manner on the product listing of any  | 
| 21 |  | high-volume third-party seller a reporting mechanism that  | 
| 22 |  | allows for electronic and telephonic reporting of suspicious  | 
| 23 |  | marketplace activity to the online marketplace.
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| 24 |  |  (k) Information collected solely to comply with the  | 
| 25 |  | requirements of this Section may not be used for any other  | 
| 26 |  | purpose unless required by law. An online marketplace shall  | 
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| 1 |  | implement and maintain reasonable security procedures and  | 
| 2 |  | practices, including administrative, physical, and technical  | 
| 3 |  | safeguards, appropriate to the nature of the data and the  | 
| 4 |  | purposes for which the data will be used, to protect the data  | 
| 5 |  | collected under this Section from unauthorized use,  | 
| 6 |  | disclosure, access, destruction, or modification.
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| 7 |  | Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this subsection,  | 
| 8 |  | the Attorney General may request, by subpoena or otherwise,  | 
| 9 |  | and use any information collected to comply with the  | 
| 10 |  | requirements of this Section to enforce the provisions of this  | 
| 11 |  | Act as set forth in subsection (l). | 
| 12 |  |  (l) If the Attorney General has reason to believe that any  | 
| 13 |  | person has violated this Act, the Attorney General may bring  | 
| 14 |  | an action in the name of the People of the State against the  | 
| 15 |  | person to restrain by preliminary or permanent injunction the  | 
| 16 |  | use of such a method, act, or practice. The court, in its  | 
| 17 |  | discretion, may exercise all powers necessary, including, but  | 
| 18 |  | not limited to: injunction; revocation, forfeiture, or  | 
| 19 |  | suspension of any license, charter, franchise, certificate, or  | 
| 20 |  | other evidence of authority of any person to do business in  | 
| 21 |  | this State; appointment of a receiver; dissolution of domestic  | 
| 22 |  | corporations or associations or suspension or termination of  | 
| 23 |  | the right of foreign corporations or associations to do  | 
| 24 |  | business in this State; and restitution.
In the administration  | 
| 25 |  | of this Section, the Attorney General may accept an Assurance  | 
| 26 |  | of Voluntary Compliance with respect to any method, act, or  | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  | practice deemed to be violative of this Act from any person who  | 
| 2 |  | has engaged in, is engaging in, or was ab to engage in such a  | 
| 3 |  | method, act, or practice. Evidence of a violation of an  | 
| 4 |  | Assurance of Voluntary Compliance shall be prima facie  | 
| 5 |  | evidence of a violation of this Act in any subsequent  | 
| 6 |  | proceeding brought by the Attorney General against the alleged  | 
| 7 |  | violator.
The Attorney General shall be empowered to issue  | 
| 8 |  | subpoenas to or examine under oath any person alleged to have  | 
| 9 |  | participated in or to have knowledge of the alleged method,  | 
| 10 |  | act, or practice in violation of this Act. Nothing in this Act  | 
| 11 |  | creates or is intended to create a private right of action  | 
| 12 |  | against any high-volume third-party seller, online marketplace  | 
| 13 |  | seller, or third-party seller based upon compliance or  | 
| 14 |  | noncompliance with its provisions.
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| 15 |  |  (m) To the extent that a substantially similar federal law  | 
| 16 |  | or regulation conflicts with this Act, the federal law or  | 
| 17 |  | regulation controls.
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| 18 |  | Article 2.  | 
| 19 |  |  Section 2-5. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by  | 
| 20 |  | changing Sections 16-0.1 and 17-37 and by adding Sections  | 
| 21 |  | 16-25.1 and 16-25.2 as follows: | 
| 22 |  |  (720 ILCS 5/16-0.1) | 
| 23 |  |  Sec. 16-0.1. Definitions. In this Article, unless the  | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  | context clearly requires otherwise, the following terms are  | 
| 2 |  | defined as indicated: | 
| 3 |  |  "Access" means to use, instruct, communicate with, store  | 
| 4 |  | data in, retrieve or intercept data from, or otherwise utilize  | 
| 5 |  | any services of a computer. | 
| 6 |  |  "Coin-operated machine" includes any automatic vending  | 
| 7 |  | machine or any part thereof, parking meter, coin telephone,  | 
| 8 |  | coin-operated transit turnstile, transit fare box, coin  | 
| 9 |  | laundry machine, coin dry cleaning machine, amusement machine,  | 
| 10 |  | music machine, vending machine dispensing goods or services,  | 
| 11 |  | or money changer. | 
| 12 |  |  "Communication device" means any type of instrument,  | 
| 13 |  | device, machine, or equipment which is capable of  | 
| 14 |  | transmitting, acquiring, decrypting, or receiving any  | 
| 15 |  | telephonic, electronic, data, Internet access, audio, video,  | 
| 16 |  | microwave, or radio transmissions, signals, communications, or  | 
| 17 |  | services, including the receipt, acquisition, transmission, or  | 
| 18 |  | decryption of all such communications, transmissions, signals,  | 
| 19 |  | or services provided by or through any cable television, fiber  | 
| 20 |  | optic, telephone, satellite, microwave, radio, Internet-based,  | 
| 21 |  | data transmission, or wireless distribution network, system or  | 
| 22 |  | facility; or any part, accessory, or component thereof,  | 
| 23 |  | including any computer circuit, security module, smart card,  | 
| 24 |  | software, computer chip, electronic mechanism or other  | 
| 25 |  | component, accessory or part of any communication device which  | 
| 26 |  | is capable of facilitating the transmission, decryption,  | 
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| 1 |  | acquisition or reception of all such communications,  | 
| 2 |  | transmissions, signals, or services. | 
| 3 |  |  "Communication service" means any service lawfully  | 
| 4 |  | provided for a charge or compensation to facilitate the lawful  | 
| 5 |  | origination, transmission, emission, or reception of signs,  | 
| 6 |  | signals, data, writings, images, and sounds or intelligence of  | 
| 7 |  | any nature by telephone, including cellular telephones or a  | 
| 8 |  | wire, wireless, radio, electromagnetic, photo-electronic or  | 
| 9 |  | photo-optical system; and also any service lawfully provided  | 
| 10 |  | by any radio, telephone, cable television, fiber optic,  | 
| 11 |  | satellite, microwave, Internet-based or wireless distribution  | 
| 12 |  | network, system, facility or technology, including, but not  | 
| 13 |  | limited to, any and all electronic, data, video, audio,  | 
| 14 |  | Internet access, telephonic, microwave and radio  | 
| 15 |  | communications, transmissions, signals and services, and any  | 
| 16 |  | such communications, transmissions, signals and services  | 
| 17 |  | lawfully provided directly or indirectly by or through any of  | 
| 18 |  | those networks, systems, facilities or technologies. | 
| 19 |  |  "Communication service provider" means: (1) any person or  | 
| 20 |  | entity providing any communication service, whether directly  | 
| 21 |  | or indirectly, as a reseller, including, but not limited to, a  | 
| 22 |  | cellular, paging or other wireless communications company or  | 
| 23 |  | other person or entity which, for a fee, supplies the  | 
| 24 |  | facility, cell site, mobile telephone switching office or  | 
| 25 |  | other equipment or communication service; (2) any person or  | 
| 26 |  | entity owning or operating any cable television, fiber optic,  | 
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| 1 |  | satellite, telephone, wireless, microwave, radio, data  | 
| 2 |  | transmission or Internet-based distribution network, system or  | 
| 3 |  | facility; and (3) any person or entity providing any  | 
| 4 |  | communication service directly or indirectly by or through any  | 
| 5 |  | such distribution system, network or facility. | 
| 6 |  |  "Computer" means a device that accepts, processes, stores,  | 
| 7 |  | retrieves or outputs data, and includes but is not limited to  | 
| 8 |  | auxiliary storage and telecommunications devices connected to  | 
| 9 |  | computers. | 
| 10 |  |  "Continuing
course of conduct" means a series of acts, and  | 
| 11 |  | the accompanying
mental state necessary for the crime in  | 
| 12 |  | question, irrespective
of whether the series of acts are  | 
| 13 |  | continuous or intermittent.  | 
| 14 |  |  "Delivery container" means any bakery basket of wire or  | 
| 15 |  | plastic used to transport or store bread or bakery products,  | 
| 16 |  | any dairy case of wire or plastic used to transport or store  | 
| 17 |  | dairy products, and any dolly or cart of 2 or 4 wheels used to  | 
| 18 |  | transport or store any bakery or dairy product. | 
| 19 |  |  "Document-making implement" means any implement,  | 
| 20 |  | impression, template, computer file, computer disc, electronic  | 
| 21 |  | device, computer hardware, computer software, instrument, or  | 
| 22 |  | device that is used to make a real or fictitious or fraudulent  | 
| 23 |  | personal identification document. | 
| 24 |  |  "Financial transaction device" means any of the following: | 
| 25 |  |   (1) An electronic funds transfer card. | 
| 26 |  |   (2) A credit card. | 
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| 1 |  |   (3) A debit card. | 
| 2 |  |   (4) A point-of-sale card. | 
| 3 |  |   (5) Any instrument, device, card, plate, code, account  | 
| 4 |  | number, personal identification number, or a record or  | 
| 5 |  | copy of a code, account number, or personal identification  | 
| 6 |  | number or other means of access to a credit account or  | 
| 7 |  | deposit account, or a driver's license or State  | 
| 8 |  | identification card used to access a proprietary account,  | 
| 9 |  | other than access originated solely by a paper instrument,  | 
| 10 |  | that can be used alone or in conjunction with another  | 
| 11 |  | access device, for any of the following purposes: | 
| 12 |  |    (A) Obtaining money, cash refund or credit  | 
| 13 |  | account, credit, goods, services, or any other thing  | 
| 14 |  | of value. | 
| 15 |  |    (B) Certifying or guaranteeing to a person or  | 
| 16 |  | business the availability to the device holder of  | 
| 17 |  | funds on deposit to honor a draft or check payable to  | 
| 18 |  | the order of that person or business. | 
| 19 |  |    (C) Providing the device holder access to a  | 
| 20 |  | deposit account for the purpose of making deposits,  | 
| 21 |  | withdrawing funds, transferring funds between deposit  | 
| 22 |  | accounts, obtaining information pertaining to a  | 
| 23 |  | deposit account, or making an electronic funds  | 
| 24 |  | transfer. | 
| 25 |  |  "Full retail value" means the merchant's stated or  | 
| 26 |  | advertised price of the merchandise. "Full
retail value"  | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  | includes the aggregate value of property obtained
from retail  | 
| 2 |  | thefts committed by the same person as part of a
continuing  | 
| 3 |  | course of conduct from one or more mercantile
establishments  | 
| 4 |  | in a single transaction or in separate
transactions over a  | 
| 5 |  | period of one year. | 
| 6 |  |  "Internet" means an interactive computer service or system  | 
| 7 |  | or an information service, system, or access software provider  | 
| 8 |  | that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to  | 
| 9 |  | a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an  | 
| 10 |  | information service, system, or access software provider that  | 
| 11 |  | provides access to a network system commonly known as the  | 
| 12 |  | Internet, or any comparable system or service and also  | 
| 13 |  | includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page,  | 
| 14 |  | newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any  | 
| 15 |  | interactive computer service or system or other online  | 
| 16 |  | service. | 
| 17 |  |  "Library card" means a card or plate issued by a library  | 
| 18 |  | facility for purposes of identifying the person to whom the  | 
| 19 |  | library card was issued as authorized to borrow library  | 
| 20 |  | material, subject to all limitations and conditions imposed on  | 
| 21 |  | the borrowing by the library facility issuing such card. | 
| 22 |  |  "Library facility" includes any public library or museum,  | 
| 23 |  | or any library or museum of an educational, historical or  | 
| 24 |  | eleemosynary institution, organization or society. | 
| 25 |  |  "Library material" includes any book, plate, picture,  | 
| 26 |  | photograph, engraving, painting, sculpture, statue, artifact,  | 
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| 1 |  | drawing, map, newspaper, pamphlet, broadside, magazine,  | 
| 2 |  | manuscript, document, letter, microfilm, sound recording,  | 
| 3 |  | audiovisual material, magnetic or other tape, electronic data  | 
| 4 |  | processing record or other documentary, written or printed  | 
| 5 |  | material regardless of physical form or characteristics, or  | 
| 6 |  | any part thereof, belonging to, or on loan to or otherwise in  | 
| 7 |  | the custody of a library facility. | 
| 8 |  |  "Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful access device"  | 
| 9 |  | means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful access device  | 
| 10 |  | or to modify, alter, program or re-program any instrument,  | 
| 11 |  | device, machine, equipment or software so that it is capable  | 
| 12 |  | of defeating or circumventing any technology, device or  | 
| 13 |  | software used by the provider, owner or licensee of a  | 
| 14 |  | communication service or of any data, audio or video programs  | 
| 15 |  | or transmissions to protect any such communication, data,  | 
| 16 |  | audio or video services, programs or transmissions from  | 
| 17 |  | unauthorized access, acquisition, disclosure, receipt,  | 
| 18 |  | decryption, communication, transmission or re-transmission. | 
| 19 |  |  "Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful communication  | 
| 20 |  | device" means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful  | 
| 21 |  | communication or wireless device or to modify, alter, program  | 
| 22 |  | or reprogram a communication or wireless device to be capable  | 
| 23 |  | of acquiring, disrupting, receiving, transmitting, decrypting,  | 
| 24 |  | or facilitating the acquisition, disruption, receipt,  | 
| 25 |  | transmission or decryption of, a communication service without  | 
| 26 |  | the express consent or express authorization of the  | 
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| 1 |  | communication service provider, or to knowingly assist others  | 
| 2 |  | in those activities. | 
| 3 |  |  "Master sound recording" means the original physical  | 
| 4 |  | object on which a given set of sounds were first recorded and  | 
| 5 |  | which the original object from which all subsequent sound  | 
| 6 |  | recordings embodying the same set of sounds are directly or  | 
| 7 |  | indirectly derived. | 
| 8 |  |  "Merchandise" means any item of tangible personal  | 
| 9 |  | property, including motor fuel. | 
| 10 |  |  "Merchant" means an owner or operator of any retail  | 
| 11 |  | mercantile establishment or any agent, employee, lessee,  | 
| 12 |  | consignee, officer, director, franchisee, or independent  | 
| 13 |  | contractor of the owner or operator. "Merchant" also means a  | 
| 14 |  | person who receives from an authorized user of a payment card,  | 
| 15 |  | or someone the person believes to be an authorized user, a  | 
| 16 |  | payment card or information from a payment card, or what the  | 
| 17 |  | person believes to be a payment card or information from a  | 
| 18 |  | payment card, as the instrument for obtaining, purchasing or  | 
| 19 |  | receiving goods, services, money, or anything else of value  | 
| 20 |  | from the person. | 
| 21 |  |  "Motor fuel" means a liquid, regardless of its properties,  | 
| 22 |  | used to propel a vehicle, including gasoline and diesel. | 
| 23 |  |  "Online" means the use of any electronic or wireless  | 
| 24 |  | device to access the Internet. | 
| 25 |  |  "Online marketplace" means any person or entity that: | 
| 26 |  |   (1) operates a consumer-directed electronically based  | 
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| 1 |  | or accessed platform that includes features that allow  | 
| 2 |  | for, facilitate, or enable online third-party sellers to  | 
| 3 |  | engage in the sale, purchase, payment, storage, shipping,  | 
| 4 |  | or delivery of merchandise in this State and is used by one  | 
| 5 |  | or more online third-party sellers for such purposes; and | 
| 6 |  |   (2) has a contractual or similar relationship with  | 
| 7 |  | consumers governing their use of the platform to purchase  | 
| 8 |  | merchandise. | 
| 9 |  |  "Payment card" means a credit card, charge card, debit  | 
| 10 |  | card, or any other card that is issued to an authorized card  | 
| 11 |  | user and that allows the user to obtain, purchase, or receive  | 
| 12 |  | goods, services, money, or anything else of value from a  | 
| 13 |  | merchant. | 
| 14 |  |  "Person with a disability" means a person who
suffers from  | 
| 15 |  | a physical or mental impairment resulting from
disease,  | 
| 16 |  | injury, functional disorder or congenital condition that  | 
| 17 |  | impairs the
individual's mental or physical ability to  | 
| 18 |  | independently manage his or her
property or financial  | 
| 19 |  | resources, or both.  | 
| 20 |  |  "Personal identification document" means a birth  | 
| 21 |  | certificate, a driver's license, a State identification card,  | 
| 22 |  | a public, government, or private employment identification  | 
| 23 |  | card, a social security card, a firearm owner's identification  | 
| 24 |  | card, a credit card, a debit card, or a passport issued to or  | 
| 25 |  | on behalf of a person other than the offender, or any document  | 
| 26 |  | made or issued, or falsely purported to have been made or  | 
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| 1 |  | issued, by or under the authority of the United States  | 
| 2 |  | Government, the State of Illinois, or any other state  | 
| 3 |  | political subdivision of any state, or any other governmental  | 
| 4 |  | or quasi-governmental organization that is of a type intended  | 
| 5 |  | for the purpose of identification of an individual, or any  | 
| 6 |  | such document made or altered in a manner that it falsely  | 
| 7 |  | purports to have been made on behalf of or issued to another  | 
| 8 |  | person or by the authority of one who did not give that  | 
| 9 |  | authority. | 
| 10 |  |  "Personal identifying information" means any of the  | 
| 11 |  | following information: | 
| 12 |  |   (1) A person's name. | 
| 13 |  |   (2) A person's address. | 
| 14 |  |   (3) A person's date of birth. | 
| 15 |  |   (4) A person's telephone number. | 
| 16 |  |   (5) A person's driver's license number or State of  | 
| 17 |  | Illinois identification card as assigned by the Secretary  | 
| 18 |  | of State of the State of Illinois or a similar agency of  | 
| 19 |  | another state. | 
| 20 |  |   (6) A person's social security number. | 
| 21 |  |   (7) A person's public, private, or government  | 
| 22 |  | employer, place of employment, or employment  | 
| 23 |  | identification number. | 
| 24 |  |   (8) The maiden name of a person's mother. | 
| 25 |  |   (9) The number assigned to a person's depository  | 
| 26 |  | account, savings account, or brokerage account. | 
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| 1 |  |   (10) The number assigned to a person's credit or debit  | 
| 2 |  | card, commonly known as a "Visa Card", "MasterCard",  | 
| 3 |  | "American Express Card", "Discover Card", or other similar  | 
| 4 |  | cards whether issued by a financial institution,  | 
| 5 |  | corporation, or business entity. | 
| 6 |  |   (11) Personal identification numbers. | 
| 7 |  |   (12) Electronic identification numbers. | 
| 8 |  |   (13) Digital signals. | 
| 9 |  |   (14) User names, passwords, and any other word,  | 
| 10 |  | number, character or combination of the same usable in  | 
| 11 |  | whole or part to access information relating to a specific  | 
| 12 |  | individual, or to the actions taken, communications made  | 
| 13 |  | or received, or other activities or transactions of a  | 
| 14 |  | specific individual. | 
| 15 |  |   (15) Any other numbers or information which can be  | 
| 16 |  | used to access a person's financial resources, or to  | 
| 17 |  | identify a specific individual, or the actions taken,  | 
| 18 |  | communications made or received, or other activities or  | 
| 19 |  | transactions of a specific individual. | 
| 20 |  |  "Premises of a retail mercantile establishment" includes,  | 
| 21 |  | but is not limited to, the retail mercantile establishment;  | 
| 22 |  | any common use areas in shopping centers; and all parking  | 
| 23 |  | areas set aside by a merchant or on behalf of a merchant for  | 
| 24 |  | the parking of vehicles for the convenience of the patrons of  | 
| 25 |  | such retail mercantile establishment. | 
| 26 |  |  "Public water, gas, or power supply, or other public  | 
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| 1 |  | services" mean any service subject to regulation by the  | 
| 2 |  | Illinois Commerce Commission; any service furnished by a  | 
| 3 |  | public utility that is owned and operated by any political  | 
| 4 |  | subdivision, public institution of higher education or  | 
| 5 |  | municipal corporation of this State; any service furnished by  | 
| 6 |  | any public utility that is owned by such political  | 
| 7 |  | subdivision, public institution of higher education, or  | 
| 8 |  | municipal corporation and operated by any of its lessees or  | 
| 9 |  | operating agents; any service furnished by an electric  | 
| 10 |  | cooperative as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier  | 
| 11 |  | Act; or wireless service or other service regulated by the  | 
| 12 |  | Federal Communications Commission. | 
| 13 |  |  "Publish" means to communicate or disseminate information  | 
| 14 |  | to any one or more persons, either orally, in person, or by  | 
| 15 |  | telephone, radio or television or in writing of any kind,  | 
| 16 |  | including, without limitation, a letter or memorandum,  | 
| 17 |  | circular or handbill, newspaper or magazine article or book. | 
| 18 |  |  "Radio frequency identification device" means any  | 
| 19 |  | implement, computer file, computer disc, electronic device,  | 
| 20 |  | computer hardware, computer software, or instrument that is  | 
| 21 |  | used to activate, read, receive, or decode information stored  | 
| 22 |  | on a RFID tag or transponder attached to a personal  | 
| 23 |  | identification document.  | 
| 24 |  |  "RFID tag or transponder" means a chip or device that  | 
| 25 |  | contains personal identifying information from which the  | 
| 26 |  | personal identifying information can be read or decoded by  | 
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| 1 |  | another device emitting a radio frequency that activates or  | 
| 2 |  | powers a radio frequency emission response from the chip or  | 
| 3 |  | transponder.  | 
| 4 |  |  "Reencoder" means an electronic device that places encoded  | 
| 5 |  | information from the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment  | 
| 6 |  | card onto the magnetic strip or stripe of a different payment  | 
| 7 |  | card. | 
| 8 |  |  "Retail mercantile establishment" means any place where  | 
| 9 |  | merchandise is displayed, held, stored or offered for sale to  | 
| 10 |  | the public. | 
| 11 |  |  "Scanning device" means a scanner, reader, or any other  | 
| 12 |  | electronic device that is used to access, read, scan, obtain,  | 
| 13 |  | memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information  | 
| 14 |  | encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card. | 
| 15 |  |  "Shopping cart" means those push carts of the type or  | 
| 16 |  | types which are commonly provided by grocery stores, drug  | 
| 17 |  | stores or other retail mercantile establishments for the use  | 
| 18 |  | of the public in transporting commodities in stores and  | 
| 19 |  | markets and, incidentally, from the stores to a place outside  | 
| 20 |  | the store. | 
| 21 |  |  "Sound or audio visual recording" means any sound or audio  | 
| 22 |  | visual phonograph record, disc, pre-recorded tape, film, wire,  | 
| 23 |  | magnetic tape or other object, device or medium, now known or  | 
| 24 |  | hereafter invented, by which sounds or images may be  | 
| 25 |  | reproduced with or without the use of any additional machine,  | 
| 26 |  | equipment or device. | 
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| 1 |  |  "Stored value card" means any card, gift card, instrument,  | 
| 2 |  | or device issued with or without fee for the use of the  | 
| 3 |  | cardholder to obtain money, goods, services, or anything else  | 
| 4 |  | of value. Stored value cards include, but are not limited to,  | 
| 5 |  | cards issued for use as a stored value card or gift card, and  | 
| 6 |  | an account identification number or symbol used to identify a  | 
| 7 |  | stored value card. "Stored value card" does not include a  | 
| 8 |  | prepaid card usable at multiple, unaffiliated merchants or at  | 
| 9 |  | automated teller machines, or both. "Stored value card" shall  | 
| 10 |  | only apply to Section 16-25.1 of this Act.  | 
| 11 |  |  "Theft detection device remover" means any tool or device  | 
| 12 |  | specifically designed and intended to be used to remove any  | 
| 13 |  | theft detection device from any merchandise. | 
| 14 |  |  "Under-ring" means to cause the cash register or other  | 
| 15 |  | sales recording device to reflect less than the full retail  | 
| 16 |  | value of the merchandise. | 
| 17 |  |  "Unidentified sound or audio visual recording" means a  | 
| 18 |  | sound or audio visual recording without the actual name and  | 
| 19 |  | full and correct street address of the manufacturer, and the  | 
| 20 |  | name of the actual performers or groups prominently and  | 
| 21 |  | legibly printed on the outside cover or jacket and on the label  | 
| 22 |  | of such sound or audio visual recording. | 
| 23 |  |  "Unlawful access device" means any type of instrument,  | 
| 24 |  | device, machine, equipment, technology, or software which is  | 
| 25 |  | primarily possessed, used, designed, assembled, manufactured,  | 
| 26 |  | sold, distributed or offered, promoted or advertised for the  | 
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| 1 |  | purpose of defeating or circumventing any technology, device  | 
| 2 |  | or software, or any component or part thereof, used by the  | 
| 3 |  | provider, owner or licensee of any communication service or of  | 
| 4 |  | any data, audio or video programs or transmissions to protect  | 
| 5 |  | any such communication, audio or video services, programs or  | 
| 6 |  | transmissions from unauthorized access, acquisition, receipt,  | 
| 7 |  | decryption, disclosure, communication, transmission or  | 
| 8 |  | re-transmission. | 
| 9 |  |  "Unlawful communication device" means any electronic  | 
| 10 |  | serial number, mobile identification number, personal  | 
| 11 |  | identification number or any communication or wireless device  | 
| 12 |  | that is capable of acquiring or facilitating the acquisition  | 
| 13 |  | of a communication service without the express consent or  | 
| 14 |  | express authorization of the communication service provider,  | 
| 15 |  | or that has been altered, modified, programmed or  | 
| 16 |  | reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with another  | 
| 17 |  | communication or wireless device or other equipment, to so  | 
| 18 |  | acquire or facilitate the unauthorized acquisition of a  | 
| 19 |  | communication service. "Unlawful communication device" also  | 
| 20 |  | means: | 
| 21 |  |   (1) any phone altered to obtain service without the  | 
| 22 |  | express consent or express authorization of the  | 
| 23 |  | communication service provider, tumbler phone, counterfeit  | 
| 24 |  | or clone phone, tumbler microchip, counterfeit or clone  | 
| 25 |  | microchip, scanning receiver of wireless communication  | 
| 26 |  | service or other instrument capable of disguising its  | 
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| 1 |  | identity or location or of gaining unauthorized access to  | 
| 2 |  | a communications or wireless system operated by a  | 
| 3 |  | communication service provider; and | 
| 4 |  |   (2) any communication or wireless device which is  | 
| 5 |  | capable of, or has been altered, designed, modified,  | 
| 6 |  | programmed or reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with  | 
| 7 |  | another communication or wireless device or devices, so as  | 
| 8 |  | to be capable of, facilitating the disruption,  | 
| 9 |  | acquisition, receipt, transmission or decryption of a  | 
| 10 |  | communication service without the express consent or  | 
| 11 |  | express authorization of the communication service  | 
| 12 |  | provider, including, but not limited to, any device,  | 
| 13 |  | technology, product, service, equipment, computer software  | 
| 14 |  | or component or part thereof, primarily distributed, sold,  | 
| 15 |  | designed, assembled, manufactured, modified, programmed,  | 
| 16 |  | reprogrammed or used for the purpose of providing the  | 
| 17 |  | unauthorized receipt of, transmission of, disruption of,  | 
| 18 |  | decryption of, access to or acquisition of any  | 
| 19 |  | communication service provided by any communication  | 
| 20 |  | service provider. | 
| 21 |  |  "Vehicle" means a motor vehicle, motorcycle, or farm  | 
| 22 |  | implement that is self-propelled and that uses motor fuel for  | 
| 23 |  | propulsion. | 
| 24 |  |  "Wireless device" includes any type of instrument, device,  | 
| 25 |  | machine, or
equipment that is capable of transmitting or  | 
| 26 |  | receiving telephonic, electronic
or
radio communications, or  | 
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| 1 |  | any part of such instrument, device, machine, or
equipment, or  | 
| 2 |  | any computer circuit, computer chip, electronic mechanism, or
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| 3 |  | other component that is capable of facilitating the  | 
| 4 |  | transmission or reception
of telephonic, electronic, or radio  | 
| 5 |  | communications. 
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| 6 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-388, eff.  | 
| 7 |  | 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.) | 
| 8 |  |  (720 ILCS 5/16-25.1 new) | 
| 9 |  |  Sec. 16-25.1. Organized retail crime. | 
| 10 |  |  (a) A person commits organized retail crime when that  | 
| 11 |  | individual, in concert with another individual or any group of  | 
| 12 |  | individuals, knowingly does any of the following: | 
| 13 |  |   (1) engages in conduct in which one or more of the  | 
| 14 |  | following apply: | 
| 15 |  |    (A) commits the act of retail theft from one or  | 
| 16 |  | more retail mercantile establishments, if the  | 
| 17 |  | aggregate value of the merchandise exceeds $300, and  | 
| 18 |  | has the intent or purpose of reselling the merchandise  | 
| 19 |  | or otherwise having the merchandise reenter the stream  | 
| 20 |  | of commerce, including the transfer of the merchandise  | 
| 21 |  | to another retail mercantile establishment or to any  | 
| 22 |  | other individual personally, through the mail, or  | 
| 23 |  | through any electronic medium, including the Internet  | 
| 24 |  | or online marketplace, in exchange for anything of  | 
| 25 |  | value; | 
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| 1 |  |    (B) commits the act of retail theft from one or  | 
| 2 |  | more retail mercantile establishments, and in the  | 
| 3 |  | course of or in furtherance of such crime or flight  | 
| 4 |  | therefrom: | 
| 5 |  |     (i) the individual assaults another on the  | 
| 6 |  | premises of the retail mercantile establishment;  | 
| 7 |  | or | 
| 8 |  |     (ii) the individual destroys, damages, or  | 
| 9 |  | defaces the property of the retail mercantile  | 
| 10 |  | establishment; or | 
| 11 |  |    (C) commits the theft of the merchandise while the  | 
| 12 |  | merchandise is in transit from the manufacturer to the  | 
| 13 |  | retail mercantile establishment and has the intent to  | 
| 14 |  | resell that merchandise.  | 
| 15 |  |   (2) recruits, organizes, supervises, finances, or  | 
| 16 |  | otherwise manages or directs another individual in  | 
| 17 |  | engaging in conduct described in paragraph (1); | 
| 18 |  |   (3) conspires with another individual to engage in  | 
| 19 |  | conduct described in paragraph (1); | 
| 20 |  |   (4) obtains control over property for sale or resale  | 
| 21 |  | knowing the property to have been stolen or under such  | 
| 22 |  | circumstances as would reasonably induce the individual to  | 
| 23 |  | believe that the property was stolen; | 
| 24 |  |   (5) obtains or exerts control over property in the  | 
| 25 |  | custody of any law enforcement agency that any law  | 
| 26 |  | enforcement officer or any individual acting on behalf of  | 
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| 1 |  | a law enforcement agency explicitly represents to the  | 
| 2 |  | person as being stolen or represents to the person such  | 
| 3 |  | circumstances as would reasonably induce the person to  | 
| 4 |  | believe that the property was stolen, and: | 
| 5 |  |    (A) intends to deprive the owner permanently of  | 
| 6 |  | the use or benefit of the property; or | 
| 7 |  |    (B) knowingly uses, conceals, or abandons the  | 
| 8 |  | property in such a manner as to deprive the owner  | 
| 9 |  | permanently of the use or benefit of the property; or | 
| 10 |  |    (C) uses, conceals, or abandons the property  | 
| 11 |  | knowing such use, concealment, or abandonment probably  | 
| 12 |  | will deprive the owner permanently of the use or  | 
| 13 |  | benefit of the property; | 
| 14 |  |   (6) purchases a wireless telecommunication device  | 
| 15 |  | using fraudulent credit or procures a wireless  | 
| 16 |  | telecommunications service agreement with the intent to  | 
| 17 |  | defraud another individual or to breach that agreement, or  | 
| 18 |  | uses another individual to obtain a wireless  | 
| 19 |  | telecommunications service agreement with the intent to  | 
| 20 |  | defraud another individual or to breach that agreement; | 
| 21 |  |   (7) receives, possesses, or purchases any merchandise  | 
| 22 |  | or stored value cards obtained from a fraudulent return  | 
| 23 |  | with the knowledge that the property was obtained in  | 
| 24 |  | violation of this Section or Section 16-25; | 
| 25 |  |   (8) removes, destroys, deactivates, or knowingly  | 
| 26 |  | evades any component of an anti-shoplifting or inventory  | 
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| 1 |  | control device to prevent the activation of that device to  | 
| 2 |  | aid one or more individuals in engaging in conduct  | 
| 3 |  | described in paragraph (1); | 
| 4 |  |   (9) uses any artifice, instrument, container, device,  | 
| 5 |  | or other article to aid one or more individuals in  | 
| 6 |  | engaging in conduct described in paragraph (1); | 
| 7 |  |   (10) causes an emergency alarm to sound or otherwise  | 
| 8 |  | activates, deactivates, or prevents an emergency alarm  | 
| 9 |  | from sounding to aid one or more individuals in engaging  | 
| 10 |  | in conduct described in paragraph (1); or | 
| 11 |  |   (11) damages, destroys, or defaces the property of a  | 
| 12 |  | retail mercantile establishment while engaging in conduct  | 
| 13 |  | described in subparagraph (A) or (C) of paragraph (1). | 
| 14 |  |  (b) In a prosecution under paragraph (7) of subsection  | 
| 15 |  | (a), the trier of fact may infer from the defendant's receipt,  | 
| 16 |  | possession, or purchase of 10 or more stored value cards and  | 
| 17 |  | the aggregate value of the stored value cards exceeds $300 in a  | 
| 18 |  | 14-day period from the same individual or merchant that the  | 
| 19 |  | property was obtained in violation of this Section or Section  | 
| 20 |  | 16-25. | 
| 21 |  |  (c) If acts or omissions constituting any part of the  | 
| 22 |  | commission of the charged offense under this Section occurred  | 
| 23 |  | in more than one county, each county has concurrent venue. If  | 
| 24 |  | the charged offenses under this Section occurred in more than  | 
| 25 |  | one county, the counties may join the offenses in a single  | 
| 26 |  | criminal pleading and have concurrent venue as to all charged  | 
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| 1 |  | offenses. When counties have concurrent venue, the first  | 
| 2 |  | county in which a criminal complaint, information, or  | 
| 3 |  | indictment is issued in the case becomes the county with  | 
| 4 |  | exclusive venue. A violation of organized retail crime may be  | 
| 5 |  | investigated, indicted, and prosecuted pursuant to the  | 
| 6 |  | Statewide Grand Jury Act. | 
| 7 |  |  (d) Sentence. A violation of subdivision (1)(A),  | 
| 8 |  | (1)(B)(i), or (1)(C) or paragraph (3), (4), or (5) of  | 
| 9 |  | subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 3 felony. A violation  | 
| 10 |  | of paragraph (6) or (7) of subsection (a) is a Class 4 felony.  | 
| 11 |  | A violation of subdivision (1)(B)(ii) or paragraph (2), (8),  | 
| 12 |  | (9), (10), or (11) of subsection (a) is a Class 2 felony. | 
| 13 |  |  (720 ILCS 5/16-25.2 new) | 
| 14 |  |  Sec. 16-25.2. Retail loss prevention report and notice  | 
| 15 |  | requirements. | 
| 16 |  |  (a) A retail mercantile establishment that is a victim of  | 
| 17 |  | a violation of Section 16-25, 16-25.1, 17-10.6, or 25-4 shall  | 
| 18 |  | have the right: | 
| 19 |  |   (1) to timely notification of all court proceedings as  | 
| 20 |  | defined under subsection (e) of Section 3 of the Rights of  | 
| 21 |  | Crime Victims and Witnesses Act. Timely notice shall  | 
| 22 |  | include 7 days' notice of any court proceedings. Timely  | 
| 23 |  | notice shall be sent to the location of the retail  | 
| 24 |  | mercantile establishment where the violation occurred and  | 
| 25 |  | to the point of contact as provided by the retail  | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  | mercantile establishment. The point of contact may be any  | 
| 2 |  | employee of the retail mercantile establishment or  | 
| 3 |  | representative as provided by the retail mercantile  | 
| 4 |  | establishment; | 
| 5 |  |   (2) to communicate with the prosecution; | 
| 6 |  |   (3) to be reasonably heard at any post-arraignment  | 
| 7 |  | court proceeding in which a right of the victim is at issue  | 
| 8 |  | and any court proceeding involving a post-arraignment  | 
| 9 |  | release decision, plea, or sentencing; | 
| 10 |  |   (4) to be notified of the conviction, the sentence,  | 
| 11 |  | the imprisonment, and the release of the accused; and | 
| 12 |  |   (5) to have present at all court proceedings subject  | 
| 13 |  | to the rules of evidence an advocate of the retail  | 
| 14 |  | mercantile establishment's choice. | 
| 15 |  |  (b) Unless a retail mercantile establishment refuses to  | 
| 16 |  | file a report regarding the incident, the law enforcement  | 
| 17 |  | agency having jurisdiction shall file a report concerning the  | 
| 18 |  | incident with the State's Attorney. No law enforcement agent  | 
| 19 |  | shall discourage or attempt to discourage a retail mercantile  | 
| 20 |  | establishment from filing a police report concerning the  | 
| 21 |  | incident. Upon the request of the retail mercantile  | 
| 22 |  | establishment, the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction  | 
| 23 |  | shall provide a free copy of the police report concerning the  | 
| 24 |  | incident, as soon as practicable, but in no event later than 5  | 
| 25 |  | business days after the request. The Illinois Law Enforcement  | 
| 26 |  | Training Standards Board shall not consider any allegation of  | 
|     | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  | a violation of this subsection that is contained in a  | 
| 2 |  | complaint made under Section 1-35 of the Police and Community  | 
| 3 |  | Relations Improvement Act. | 
| 4 |  |  (720 ILCS 5/17-37) | 
| 5 |  |  Sec. 17-37. Use of credit or debit card with intent to  | 
| 6 |  | defraud.  | 
| 7 |  |  (a) A cardholder who uses a credit card or debit card  | 
| 8 |  | issued to
him or her, or allows another person to use a credit  | 
| 9 |  | card or debit card issued
to him or her, with intent to defraud  | 
| 10 |  | the
issuer, or a person providing an item or items of value, or  | 
| 11 |  | any other person is guilty of a Class A
misdemeanor if the  | 
| 12 |  | value of all items of value does not exceed $150 in any 6-month  | 
| 13 |  | period;
and is guilty of a Class 4 felony if the value exceeds  | 
| 14 |  | $150 in
any 6-month period.
 | 
| 15 |  |  (b) Where an investigation into an intent to defraud under  | 
| 16 |  | subsection (a) occurs, issuers shall consider a merchant's  | 
| 17 |  | timely submission of compelling evidence under the applicable  | 
| 18 |  | dispute management guidelines of the card association with  | 
| 19 |  | whom the merchant maintains an agreement. A merchant shall  | 
| 20 |  | comply with merchant responsibilities under any such  | 
| 21 |  | agreement.  | 
| 22 |  | (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.) | 
| 23 |  |  Section 2-10. The Statewide Grand Jury Act is amended by  | 
| 24 |  | changing Sections 2, 3, and 4 as follows:
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|  | 
| 1 |  |  (725 ILCS 215/2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1702)
 | 
| 2 |  |  Sec. 2. 
(a) County grand juries and State's Attorneys have  | 
| 3 |  | always had
and
shall continue to have primary responsibility  | 
| 4 |  | for investigating, indicting,
and prosecuting persons who  | 
| 5 |  | violate the criminal laws of the State of
Illinois. However,  | 
| 6 |  | in recent years organized terrorist activity directed
against  | 
| 7 |  | innocent civilians and certain criminal enterprises have
 | 
| 8 |  | developed that require investigation, indictment, and  | 
| 9 |  | prosecution on a
statewide or multicounty level. The criminal  | 
| 10 |  | enterprises exist
as a result of the
allure of profitability  | 
| 11 |  | present in narcotic activity, the unlawful sale and
transfer  | 
| 12 |  | of firearms, and streetgang related felonies and organized  | 
| 13 |  | terrorist
activity is supported by the contribution of money  | 
| 14 |  | and expert assistance from
geographically diverse sources. In
 | 
| 15 |  | order to shut off the life blood of terrorism and
weaken or  | 
| 16 |  | eliminate the criminal enterprises, assets, and
property
used  | 
| 17 |  | to further these offenses must be frozen, and any profit must  | 
| 18 |  | be
removed. State
statutes exist that can accomplish that  | 
| 19 |  | goal. Among them are the offense of
money laundering,  | 
| 20 |  | violations
of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the  | 
| 21 |  | Criminal Code of 2012, the
Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Act,  | 
| 22 |  | and gunrunning. Local prosecutors need
investigative personnel  | 
| 23 |  | and specialized training to attack and eliminate these
 | 
| 24 |  | profits. In light of the transitory and complex nature of  | 
| 25 |  | conduct that
constitutes these criminal activities, the many  | 
|     | 
| |  |  | 10200HB1091sam003 | - 35 - | LRB102 03105 RLC 38821 a | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  | diverse property interests that
may be used, acquired directly  | 
| 2 |  | or indirectly as a result of these criminal
activities, and  | 
| 3 |  | the many places that illegally obtained property may be
 | 
| 4 |  | located, it is the purpose of this Act to create a limited,  | 
| 5 |  | multicounty
Statewide Grand Jury with authority to  | 
| 6 |  | investigate, indict, and prosecute:
narcotic activity,  | 
| 7 |  | including cannabis and controlled substance trafficking,
 | 
| 8 |  | narcotics racketeering, money laundering, violations of the  | 
| 9 |  | Cannabis
and
Controlled Substances Tax Act, and violations of  | 
| 10 |  | Article 29D of the Criminal
Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code  | 
| 11 |  | of 2012; the unlawful sale and transfer of firearms;
 | 
| 12 |  | gunrunning; and streetgang related felonies.
 | 
| 13 |  |  (b) A Statewide Grand Jury may also investigate, indict,  | 
| 14 |  | and prosecute
violations facilitated by the use of a computer  | 
| 15 |  | of any of
the
following offenses: indecent solicitation of a  | 
| 16 |  | child, sexual exploitation of a
child, soliciting for a  | 
| 17 |  | juvenile prostitute, keeping a place of juvenile
prostitution,  | 
| 18 |  | juvenile pimping, child pornography, aggravated child  | 
| 19 |  | pornography, or promoting juvenile prostitution except as  | 
| 20 |  | described in subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4 of the  | 
| 21 |  | Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
 | 
| 22 |  |  (c) A Statewide Grand Jury may also investigate, indict,  | 
| 23 |  | and prosecute violations of organized retail crime.  | 
| 24 |  | (Source: P.A. 101-593, eff. 12-4-19.)
 | 
| 25 |  |  (725 ILCS 215/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1703)
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| |  |  | 10200HB1091sam003 | - 36 - | LRB102 03105 RLC 38821 a | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  |  Sec. 3. Written application for the appointment of a  | 
| 2 |  | Circuit
Judge to convene and preside over a Statewide Grand  | 
| 3 |  | Jury, with jurisdiction
extending throughout the State, shall  | 
| 4 |  | be made to the Chief Justice of the
Supreme Court. Upon such  | 
| 5 |  | written application, the Chief Justice of the
Supreme Court  | 
| 6 |  | shall appoint a Circuit Judge from the circuit where the
 | 
| 7 |  | Statewide Grand Jury is being sought to be convened, who shall  | 
| 8 |  | make a
determination that the convening of a Statewide Grand  | 
| 9 |  | Jury is necessary.
 | 
| 10 |  |  In such application the Attorney General shall state that  | 
| 11 |  | the convening
of a Statewide Grand Jury is necessary because  | 
| 12 |  | of an alleged offense or
offenses set forth in this Section  | 
| 13 |  | involving more than one county of the
State and identifying  | 
| 14 |  | any such offense alleged; and
 | 
| 15 |  |   (a) that he or she believes that the grand jury  | 
| 16 |  | function for the
investigation and indictment of the  | 
| 17 |  | offense or offenses cannot effectively be
performed by a  | 
| 18 |  | county grand jury together with the reasons for such
 | 
| 19 |  | belief, and
 | 
| 20 |  |   (b)(1) that each State's Attorney with jurisdiction  | 
| 21 |  | over an offense
or offenses to be investigated has  | 
| 22 |  | consented to the impaneling of the
Statewide Grand Jury,  | 
| 23 |  | or
 | 
| 24 |  |   (2) if one or more of the State's Attorneys having  | 
| 25 |  | jurisdiction over
an offense or offenses to be  | 
| 26 |  | investigated fails to consent to the impaneling
of the  | 
|     | 
| |  |  | 10200HB1091sam003 | - 37 - | LRB102 03105 RLC 38821 a | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  | Statewide Grand Jury, the Attorney General shall set forth  | 
| 2 |  | good cause
for impaneling the Statewide Grand Jury.
 | 
| 3 |  |  If the Circuit Judge determines that the convening of a  | 
| 4 |  | Statewide Grand
Jury is necessary, he or she shall convene and  | 
| 5 |  | impanel the Statewide Grand
Jury with jurisdiction extending  | 
| 6 |  | throughout the State to investigate and
return indictments:
 | 
| 7 |  |   (a) For violations of any of the following or for any  | 
| 8 |  | other criminal
offense committed in the course of  | 
| 9 |  | violating any of the following: Article
29D of the  | 
| 10 |  | Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the
 | 
| 11 |  | Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control  | 
| 12 |  | Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection  | 
| 13 |  | Act, or the Narcotics
Profit Forfeiture Act; a
streetgang  | 
| 14 |  | related felony offense; Section 16-25.1, 24-2.1, 24-2.2,  | 
| 15 |  | 24-3, 24-3A, 24-3.1,
24-3.3, 24-3.4, 24-4, or 24-5 or  | 
| 16 |  | subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(6), 24-1(a)(7),
 | 
| 17 |  | 24-1(a)(9), 24-1(a)(10), or 24-1(c) of the Criminal Code  | 
| 18 |  | of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or a money
laundering  | 
| 19 |  | offense; provided that the violation or offense involves  | 
| 20 |  | acts
occurring in more than one county of this State; and
 | 
| 21 |  |   (a-5) For violations facilitated by the use of a  | 
| 22 |  | computer, including
the use of the Internet, the World  | 
| 23 |  | Wide Web, electronic mail, message board,
newsgroup, or  | 
| 24 |  | any other commercial or noncommercial on-line service, of  | 
| 25 |  | any of
the following offenses: indecent solicitation of a  | 
| 26 |  | child, sexual exploitation
of a child, soliciting for a  | 
|     | 
| |  |  | 10200HB1091sam003 | - 38 - | LRB102 03105 RLC 38821 a | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  | juvenile prostitute, keeping a place of juvenile
 | 
| 2 |  | prostitution, juvenile pimping, child pornography,  | 
| 3 |  | aggravated child pornography, or promoting juvenile  | 
| 4 |  | prostitution except as described in subdivision (a)(4) of  | 
| 5 |  | Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the  | 
| 6 |  | Criminal Code of 2012; and
 | 
| 7 |  |   (b) For the offenses of perjury, subornation of  | 
| 8 |  | perjury, communicating
with jurors and witnesses, and  | 
| 9 |  | harassment of jurors and witnesses, as they
relate to  | 
| 10 |  | matters before the Statewide Grand Jury.
 | 
| 11 |  |  "Streetgang related" has the meaning ascribed to it in  | 
| 12 |  | Section 10 of the
Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus  | 
| 13 |  | Prevention Act.
 | 
| 14 |  |  Upon written application by the Attorney General for the  | 
| 15 |  | convening of an
additional Statewide Grand Jury, the Chief  | 
| 16 |  | Justice of the Supreme Court shall
appoint a Circuit Judge  | 
| 17 |  | from the circuit for which the additional Statewide
Grand Jury  | 
| 18 |  | is sought. The Circuit Judge shall determine the necessity for
 | 
| 19 |  | an additional Statewide Grand Jury in accordance with the  | 
| 20 |  | provisions of this
Section. No more than 2 Statewide Grand  | 
| 21 |  | Juries may be empaneled at any time.
 | 
| 22 |  | (Source: P.A. 101-593, eff. 12-4-19.)
 | 
| 23 |  |  (725 ILCS 215/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1704)
 | 
| 24 |  |  Sec. 4. 
(a) The presiding judge of the Statewide Grand  | 
| 25 |  | Jury will
receive recommendations from the Attorney General as  | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  | to the county in which
the Grand Jury will sit. Prior to making  | 
| 2 |  | the recommendations, the Attorney
General shall obtain the  | 
| 3 |  | permission of the local State's Attorney to use
his or her  | 
| 4 |  | county for the site of the Statewide Grand Jury. Upon  | 
| 5 |  | receiving
the Attorney General's recommendations, the  | 
| 6 |  | presiding judge will choose one
of those recommended locations  | 
| 7 |  | as the site where the Grand Jury shall sit.
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| 8 |  |  Any indictment by a Statewide Grand Jury shall be returned  | 
| 9 |  | to the
Circuit Judge presiding over the Statewide Grand Jury  | 
| 10 |  | and shall include a
finding as to the county or counties in  | 
| 11 |  | which the alleged offense was
committed. Thereupon, the judge  | 
| 12 |  | shall, by order, designate the county of
venue for the purpose  | 
| 13 |  | of trial. The judge may also, by order, direct the
 | 
| 14 |  | consolidation of an indictment returned by a county grand jury  | 
| 15 |  | with an
indictment returned by the Statewide Grand Jury and  | 
| 16 |  | set venue for trial.
 | 
| 17 |  |  (b) Venue for purposes of trial for the offense of  | 
| 18 |  | narcotics
racketeering shall be proper in any county where:
 | 
| 19 |  |   (1) Cannabis or a controlled substance which is the  | 
| 20 |  | basis for the charge
of narcotics racketeering was used;  | 
| 21 |  | acquired; transferred or distributed
to, from or through;  | 
| 22 |  | or any county where any act was performed to further
the  | 
| 23 |  | use; acquisition, transfer or distribution of said  | 
| 24 |  | cannabis or
controlled substance; or
 | 
| 25 |  |   (2) Any money, property, property interest, or any  | 
| 26 |  | other asset generated
by narcotics activities was  | 
|     | 
| |  |  | 10200HB1091sam003 | - 40 - | LRB102 03105 RLC 38821 a | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  | acquired, used, sold, transferred or
distributed to, from  | 
| 2 |  | or through; or,
 | 
| 3 |  |   (3) Any enterprise interest obtained as a result of  | 
| 4 |  | narcotics
racketeering was acquired, used, transferred or  | 
| 5 |  | distributed to, from or
through, or where any activity was  | 
| 6 |  | conducted by the enterprise or any
conduct to further the  | 
| 7 |  | interests of such an enterprise.
 | 
| 8 |  |  (c) Venue for purposes of trial for the offense of money  | 
| 9 |  | laundering
shall be proper in any county where any part of a  | 
| 10 |  | financial transaction in
criminally derived property took  | 
| 11 |  | place, or in any county where any money or
monetary interest  | 
| 12 |  | which is the basis for the offense, was acquired, used,
sold,  | 
| 13 |  | transferred or distributed to, from, or through.
 | 
| 14 |  |  (d) A person who commits the offense of cannabis  | 
| 15 |  | trafficking or
controlled substance trafficking may be tried  | 
| 16 |  | in any county.
 | 
| 17 |  |  (e) Venue for purposes of trial for any violation of  | 
| 18 |  | Article 29D of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code  | 
| 19 |  | of 2012 may be in the county in which an act of terrorism  | 
| 20 |  | occurs,
the county in which material support or resources are  | 
| 21 |  | provided or solicited,
the county in which criminal assistance  | 
| 22 |  | is rendered, or any county in which any
act in furtherance of  | 
| 23 |  | any violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or  | 
| 24 |  | the Criminal Code of 2012
occurs.
 | 
| 25 |  |  (f) Venue for purposes of trial for the offense of  | 
| 26 |  | organized retail crime shall be proper in any county where: | 
|     | 
| |  |  | 10200HB1091sam003 | - 41 - | LRB102 03105 RLC 38821 a | 
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|  | 
| 1 |  |   (1) any property, property interest, asset, money, or  | 
| 2 |  | thing of value that is the basis for the charge of  | 
| 3 |  | organized retail crime was used, acquired, transferred, or  | 
| 4 |  | distributed to, from, or through; or any county where any  | 
| 5 |  | act was performed to further the use, acquisition,  | 
| 6 |  | transfer, or distribution of the property, property  | 
| 7 |  | interest, asset, money, or thing or value; or | 
| 8 |  |   (2) any enterprise interest obtained as a result of  | 
| 9 |  | organized retail crime was acquired, used, transferred, or  | 
| 10 |  | distributed to, from, or through, or where any activity  | 
| 11 |  | was conducted by the enterprise or any conduct to further  | 
| 12 |  | the interests of such an enterprise. | 
| 13 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
 | 
| 14 |  | Article 99.  | 
| 15 |  |  Section 99-99. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon  | 
| 16 |  | becoming law, except that Article 1 of this Act takes effect  | 
| 17 |  | January 1, 2023.".
 |